University of Virginia STAT STAT 6190 s Let F(x) be a proper CDF of a continuous random variable and f(x) be the corresponding pdf, do we must have 0 F(x) 1, as well as 0 f(x) 1 for all x?…
Let F(x) be a proper CDF of a continuous random variable and f(x) be the corresponding pdf, do we must have 0 ≤ F(x) ≤ 1, as well as 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 1 for all x?
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